The righteousness of God revealed

• What did Paul mean by (un)righteousness? cf Ro 1:17-18; 2:13
• vv5-6: What distinguishes the way how God judges? [“…render to each person…; cf Ro 2:11]
• How does the fact that God will judge all unrighteousness prove that he himself is righteous?
  • v4 quotes Ps 51:4. What is this psalm about? Why then, of all psalms, can this one prove Paul’s point? Hint: How did God judge David’s crime? =>
• v5: How then did especially David’s unrighteousness prove the righteousness of God beyond doubt? Hint: How did this ‘justify God in his words‘? [By confessing his sin, David proclaimed that God was right to punish it: The Bible proves God’s impartiality (and thereby its own authenticity) by condemning even the secret crimes of its own spiritual heroes, irrespective of their position and power].

• How did Paul prove that this was true even for the God-fearing Israelites?
  • Hint: Each verse in vv10-18 quotes different passages from the Old Testament. How did Paul prove that these apply especially to Jews? v19

• i.e. what is unique about the eyesight of God? cf Ro 2:16; Ps 11:4; Prov 15:3; Rev 2:16 [i.e. “in his sight” in the sense of ‘even in his sight, despite his omniscience’. God has not just another (more lenient) ‘opinion’; he has all the facts: Nothing is hidden from his sight]
  • Why does that make it impossible to please God by ‘works of the law’?
  • If God had said: “David has done so much good, I can let this one sin pass.”, how would that compromise God’s justice?
• If pleasing God is not the purpose of the law, what else is? v20b [lit. “…for the law gives knowledge of sin”. Why is the NIV right to insert “…rather (!), the law gives…”?]

• Hint: How did God ‘pass over former sins’ (v25)? How did this obscure his impartial righteousness? =>
• v26: How could the gospel demonstrate God’s righteousness when the law failed to do so?
  • Hint: If it were not for Jesus, why would it be unjust of God to declare anyone righteous apart from works of the law?
• How then did the ‘law and the prophets’ testify of their own inadequacy to accomplish what only the gospel can accomplish?

• gr. hilasterion; hebr. kapporet, refers to the lid of the ark of the covenant [Ex 25:17-22, often translated as ‘mercy seat’). hebr. root: kopher: the price of a life (sum of money, compensation, Ex 21:30; Prov 6:35; a ransom, Num 35:31), from the root verb kaphar (lit. to cover with bitumen (as with plaster in construction); figuratively, to cover/expiate sins, to placate or cancel.] =>
  Propitiation is a payment of what we owe God as a ransom for violating his law (1Tim 2:5-6).
• (if time permits) Read 1Jn 2:2. If Jesus became a ransom to redeem the ‘whole world’, does this mean that everybody’s sins are forgiven? Why not? cf Jn 11:51-52 (=> doctrine of ‘limited’ atonement, cf Jn 17:19-21)

• Read Ps 5:4-6. Who boasts before God, and why is that a problem? Ro 10:1-3; cf 2Cor 5:12
• Why is boasting excluded by no other law than by the ‘law of faith‘? v28; cf Eph 2:8-10
• v29: Based on the law of Moses, Jews agree that their God is not only God for them alone, but that he rules unseen over all nations. If the one true God is the God of Gentiles too, why then was the law of Moses prescribed to Jews only?
  • Hint: What does this prove about how anyone can be righteous, and irrespective of whether or not they have this particular law? v30
  • v31: How could Paul claim that this doctrine upholds the law of Moses?

• What do you think when you hear the ‘righteousness of God’ being mentioned?
  • i.e. do you think of such righteousness as something hat is against you, or something for you? Why?
• How would you answer Paul’s question in v8: Why not do evil that good may come?
• If you have to explain Ro 3 to a friend, what aspect do you dread or enjoy, respectively? Why?
  • What objection would you expect, and how would you address it?