Read: 1 John 2
1) v1 states that ‘these things’ were written so that…: Is it possible to stop sinning, and if so, how so? cf v6
- What were ‘these things’ that were written for this purpose? The verses before, or those after v1?
- What ‘things’ in 1Jn 1 could look as if Christianity instead gave free reign to sin? 1Jn 1:10
- How could John expect the very opposite, i.e. that ‘these things’ stop Christians from sinning? cf Jn 8:34-36
2) Among alternative salutations (see v12ff), why does v1 address the readers as little children? cf Mt 19:14
- How do all Christians resemble little children? cf Mt 18:1-4; 1Cor 14:20
- Why must all sanctification always begin with humility, i.e.:
- Why must believers learn to view themselves as small?
- Is such resemblance essential to grasp the meaning of v1? Why? cf Mt 11:25
3) vv1-2: To grow in genuine holiness that overcomes sin, we need to know Jesus as our advocate. Why?
- In Jesus, God Himself became the one who intercedes for his creatures (Heb 7:25). Why as an ‘advocate’ (gr. parakletos), and how?
- In what sense do we need Him as a legal attorney?
- Elsewhere, John described Satan as cast out from God’s court to no longer accuse the ‘brothers’, Jn 12:31; Rev 12:10. What do you make of this, and that the Bible says that only Jesus made this possible?
- The only ways to deal with guilt are denial (cover ups), retribution, or atonement. How is religion abused for cover ups, and to deny the justice of retribution to the abused?
- How did Jesus affirm that whoever continues such abuse remains accused (i.e. no need for Satan as an accuser)? cf Jn 5:45-47
- Accordingly, what does it take to truly escape condemnation? cf Ro 8:31-34
- To explain in what sense Jesus has become this advocate, John also calls Him our propitiation (gr. hilasmos, a payment of what we owe to God for violating his law). The related word hilasterion (propitiation/expiation/atonement) is how the lid of the ark was called in Greek (hebr. kapporet, often translated as ‘mercy-seat’, above the stone tablets of the ten commandments, Ex 25:17-22). How is Jesus a propitiation? cf Ro 3:25; 1Tim 2:5-6
- “.., a ransom to redeem the ‘whole world”: Does this mean that everybody is forgiven? Why or why not? 1Jn 1:7
- If sins of “the whole world” cannot mean the sins of everyone of the world, what else does it mean?
- Calvin: “…under the word all or whole, he does not include the reprobate, but designates those who should believe as well as those who were then still scattered through various parts of the world”. Do you agree with this view? Why or why not? cf Jn 11:51-52
- Millions are taught to instead pray to the ‘virgin’ Mary to be their advocate. Did John write of Jesus as our only advocate?
- Why did John call Jesus the Righteous One? Jn 1:14-18; cf Mk 10:18;
- Why does unbelief commit such idolatrous blasphemy to elevate Mary to the state of advocate on our behalf?
4) v3 “…to know that we have come to know him”: What could this mean?*
- Is it possible to have false assurance?
- How can you know whether you truly know Jesus?
- Why did John regard obedience to Jesus and his commandments as the criteria by which we must judge our knowledge of God?
- If this is the standard, (how) can anyone have assurance that they are genuine Christians and that they are not just deceiving themselves?
* Gnosticism boasted of ‘secret knowledge’ as a means for salvation. John addressed this by defining instead true criteria for assurance: 8x “By this we know…” 1Jn 2:3,5; 3:16,18-19,24; 4:6,13;5:2
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